Q1The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act is enforced in areas declared as:
- AScheduled areas
- BDisturbed areas
- CCantonment areas
- DBorder areas
Q2Under AFSPA, the power to declare an area "disturbed" is exercised by:
- AThe local police only
- BThe Governor of the state or the Central Government
- CThe Supreme Court
- DThe District Magistrate alone
Q3 (statement-based). Consider the following about the human-rights debate over AFSPA:
- The Justice Jeevan Reddy Committee (2005) recommended its repeal.
- The Supreme Court in Naga People's Movement of Human Rights (1998) upheld its constitutional validity.
- AFSPA gives complete and unreviewable immunity to security personnel.
How many are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Q4The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) primarily deals with:
- ALand reforms
- BTerrorism and unlawful associations
- CForeign trade
- DInter-state water disputes
Q5Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws restricting Fundamental Rights of forces engaged in maintaining public order, a key constitutional basis for special security laws affecting personnel?
- AArticle 21
- BArticle 22
- CArticle 33
- DArticle 35
Q6 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): The NHRC has limited jurisdiction over human-rights violations by the armed forces.
Reason (R): Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the NHRC can only seek a report from the Central Government and make recommendations in cases involving the armed forces.
- (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
- (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
- (c) A is true, R is false
- (d) A is false, R is true
Q7Preventive detention laws find their constitutional anchor in:
- AArticle 19
- BArticle 20
- CArticle 21
- DArticle 22
Q8The maximum period of preventive detention without reference to an Advisory Board, as originally fixed in Article 22, was:
- AOne month
- BTwo months
- CThree months
- DSix months
Q9Match List I (Law or body) with List II (Domain):
- AAFSPA
- BNHRC
- CUAPA
- DRTI Act
- Designation of terrorist organisations
- Special powers to the armed forces in disturbed areas
- Citizens' access to government information
- Inquiry into human-rights violations
Codes:
- (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
- (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
- (c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
- (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Q10The Right to Information Act, 2005, designates which authority at the central level to hear second appeals?
- AThe Supreme Court
- BThe Central Information Commission
- CThe Lokpal
- DThe Comptroller and Auditor General
Q11Which of the following is exempt from disclosure under the RTI Act on grounds of national security and sovereignty?
- AThe salary of a public servant
- BInformation whose disclosure would prejudicially affect the security of the State
- CThe minutes of a routine departmental meeting
- DThe text of a passed law
Q12 (statement-based). Consider the following about Article 21 as interpreted by the courts:
- The right to life includes the right to live with human dignity.
- Custodial deaths and torture violate Article 21.
- The right to a speedy trial flows from Article 21.
How many are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Q13The D K Basu guidelines of the Supreme Court relate to:
- AReservation policy
- BProcedures during arrest and detention to prevent custodial abuse
- CInter-state water sharing
- DAnti-defection
Q14The Official Language of the Union, as per Article 343, is:
- AEnglish only
- BHindi in the Devanagari script
- CSanskrit
- DHindi and English with equal status forever
Q15The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution currently lists how many languages (verify the latest)?
- A18
- B20
- C22
- D25
Q16 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): Article 370 conferred a special status on Jammu and Kashmir.
Reason (R): In 2019, the operation of Article 370 was modified and the state was reorganised into Union Territories.
- (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
- (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
- (c) A is true, R is false
- (d) A is false, R is true
Q17Which constitutional body has the mandate to investigate matters relating to the safeguards for linguistic minorities under Article 350B?
- AThe Election Commission
- BThe Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
- CThe Finance Commission
- DThe NITI Aayog
Q18The doctrine that arrested persons must be informed of the grounds of arrest and produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is found in:
- AArticle 19
- BArticle 20
- CArticle 22(1) and 22(2)
- DArticle 25
Q19 (statement-based). Consider the following about the deployment of Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs):
- Law and order and police are primarily State subjects.
- CAPFs can be deployed in a state at the Union's initiative or on a state's request.
- The Union's duty to protect states under Article 355 supports such deployment.
How many are correct?
- (a) Only one
- (b) Only two
- (c) All three
- (d) None
Q20The right against self-incrimination, that no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself, is guaranteed by:
- AArticle 20(1)
- BArticle 20(2)
- CArticle 20(3)
- DArticle 21
Q21Match List I (Provision) with List II (Protection):
- AArticle 20(1)
- BArticle 20(2)
- CArticle 20(3)
- DArticle 22(1)
- No double jeopardy
- No self-incrimination
- Right to consult a legal practitioner of choice
- No ex post facto criminal law
Codes:
- (a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
- (b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
- (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
- (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Q22Which international instrument, ratified by India, shapes domestic human-rights jurisprudence relevant to custodial safeguards?
- AThe Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, and the ICCPR, 1966
- BThe Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties only
- CThe Geneva Conventions only
- DThe Outer Space Treaty
Q23A writ of Habeas Corpus is the most direct judicial protection against:
- AExcessive taxation
- BUnlawful or arbitrary detention
- CDefamation
- DBreach of contract
Q24 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): Even during a National Emergency, the protection of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended.
Reason (R): The 44th Amendment, 1978, removed the power to suspend Articles 20 and 21 during an emergency, a key human-rights safeguard.
- (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
- (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
- (c) A is true, R is false
- (d) A is false, R is true
Q25Which of the following best captures the constitutional balance the CAPF exam tests on internal security?
- ASecurity powers are absolute and not subject to rights
- BFundamental Rights always override all security needs without exception
- CSpecial security powers exist but remain subject to constitutional limits, judicial review and human-rights safeguards
- DThe judiciary has no role in security matters