Test SeriesTest Series · Paper I

Paper I Full Mock 02

Second full CAPF Paper I mock of about 100 authored MCQs across all six sub-areas, with answer key and one-line explanations, not verbatim PYQs

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PaperPaper I
Test SeriesFull MockPaper 1

Authored practice, not a verbatim PYQ. Every question below is written for this wiki to mirror the CAPF Paper I level and formats. None reproduces a real previous-year question. Attempt closed-book in a single timed sitting (96 minutes for these 100 questions), grade with the negative-marking penalty in Index, then read the answer key and follow the links to fix gaps.

Mark scheme for self-grading: +2 correct, minus 0.66 wrong, 0 blank. Strategy and the attempt-or-skip rule are in strategy and negative marking.


Section A: General Mental Ability (Q1 to Q22)

Q1Find the next term: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
  1. A30
  2. B36
  3. C35
  4. D49
Q2If in a code MONDAY is written as NPOEBZ (each letter moved one forward), how is FRIDAY written?
  1. AGSJEBZ
  2. BGSIEBZ
  3. CGSJDBZ
  4. DGSJEAZ
Q3A is the brother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?
  1. AFather
  2. BUncle
  3. CBrother
  4. DCannot be determined
Q4The average of the first ten natural numbers is:
  1. A5
  2. B5.5
  3. C6
  4. D4.5
Q5A shopkeeper sells an article at a loss of 10 percent. Had he sold it for Rs 90 more, he would have gained 8 percent. The cost price is:
  1. ARs 450
  2. BRs 500
  3. CRs 550
  4. DRs 600
Q6Which one of the following does not belong with the others: January, March, May, June, July?
  1. AMarch
  2. BMay
  3. CJune
  4. DJuly
Q7Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5 and their sum is 80. The larger number is:
  1. A30
  2. B48
  3. C50
  4. D55
Q8A and B can do a job in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, A and C in 20 days. Working together, A, B and C finish it in:
  1. A8 days
  2. B10 days
  3. C12 days
  4. D6 days
Q9If TODAY is coded as UPEBZ and MONDAY as NPOEBZ, what is the coding rule?
  1. AEach letter is replaced by the next letter
  2. BEach letter is replaced by the previous letter
  3. CReverse the word
  4. DReplace each letter by its position number
Q10Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to the man?
  1. AMother
  2. BAunt
  3. CSister
  4. DGrandmother
Q11What is 15 percent of 25 percent of 800?
  1. A30
  2. B35
  3. C25
  4. D40
Q12Find the odd one: 121, 144, 169, 200, 225
  1. A144
  2. B169
  3. C200
  4. D225
Q13A boat goes 20 km downstream in 2 hours and the same distance upstream in 4 hours. The speed of the stream is:
  1. A2.5 km/h
  2. B5 km/h
  3. C7.5 km/h
  4. D10 km/h
Q14In a row of 40 students, Ravi is 12th from the left. What is his position from the right?
  1. A28th
  2. B29th
  3. C27th
  4. D30th
Q15Complete the series: Z, X, V, T, ?
  1. AR
  2. BS
  3. CQ
  4. DP
Q16A sum of money at compound interest amounts to Rs 2420 in 2 years and Rs 2662 in 3 years. The rate of interest per annum is:
  1. A8 percent
  2. B10 percent
  3. C12 percent
  4. D5 percent
Q17If all Roses are Flowers and some Flowers fade quickly, which conclusion necessarily follows?
  1. AAll roses fade quickly
  2. BSome roses fade quickly
  3. CNo definite conclusion about roses fading
  4. DNo flower is a rose
Q18A cube is painted on all faces and cut into 27 equal smaller cubes. How many small cubes have exactly two painted faces?
  1. A6
  2. B8
  3. C12
  4. D1
Q19The simple interest on Rs 5000 at 6 percent per annum for 2 years is:
  1. ARs 500
  2. BRs 600
  3. CRs 700
  4. DRs 300
Q20Find the missing number: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
  1. A84
  2. B98
  3. C112
  4. D96
Q21If the day before yesterday was Thursday, what day will it be the day after tomorrow?
  1. ASunday
  2. BMonday
  3. CTuesday
  4. DWednesday
Q22Three friends divide Rs 1200 in the ratio 2:3:5. The largest share is:
  1. ARs 240
  2. BRs 360
  3. CRs 600
  4. DRs 500

Section B: Indian Polity and Economy (Q23 to Q40)

Q23The idea of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Constitution of:
  1. AThe United States
  2. BIreland
  3. CCanada
  4. DAustralia

Q24. Consider the following about the office of the Governor:

  1. The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  2. The Governor must be at least 35 years of age.
  3. A person can be Governor of two or more States at the same time. Which are correct?
  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q25Which writ is issued to quash the order of a lower court or tribunal that has acted beyond its jurisdiction?
  1. AMandamus
  2. BCertiorari
  3. CQuo Warranto
  4. DHabeas Corpus
Q26The minimum age to be eligible for election as President of India is:
  1. A25 years
  2. B30 years
  3. C35 years
  4. D40 years
Q27Match List I (Committee of Parliament) with List II (Function):
  1. APublic Accounts Committee 1. Examines whether money was spent as authorised
  2. BEstimates Committee 2. Suggests economies in expenditure
  3. CCommittee on Public Undertakings 3. Examines the working of public sector undertakings
  4. DBusiness Advisory Committee 4. Allocates time for legislative business Codes:
  5. AA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  6. BA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  7. CA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  8. DA-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
Q28Which one of the following appointments is NOT made by the President of India?
  1. AChief Justice of India
  2. BComptroller and Auditor General
  3. CChief Minister of a State
  4. DAttorney General of India
Q29The "Money Bill" provision is contained in which Article of the Constitution?
  1. AArticle 108
  2. BArticle 110
  3. CArticle 112
  4. DArticle 123

Q30. Consider the following about Centre-State financial relations:

  1. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years.
  2. The Goods and Services Tax Council recommends the rates and exemptions of GST. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q31Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to:
  1. AThe share of deposits banks must invest in government securities
  2. BThe share of a bank's net demand and time liabilities to be kept as cash reserves with the RBI
  3. CThe rate at which banks borrow from the RBI
  4. DThe minimum capital a bank must hold
Q32"Demand-pull inflation" arises mainly from:
  1. AA rise in the cost of inputs such as wages and fuel
  2. BAn excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply
  3. CA fall in the money supply
  4. DAn appreciation of the rupee
Q33Which of the following is part of the Revenue Receipts of the Union Budget?
  1. ARecovery of loans
  2. BDisinvestment proceeds
  3. CCorporation tax
  4. DMarket borrowings
Q34The body that recommends the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for crops to the Government is the:
  1. AFood Corporation of India
  2. BCommission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
  3. CNITI Aayog
  4. DReserve Bank of India

Q35. Consider the following about the Indian Parliament:

  1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
  2. The Rajya Sabha can detain a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q36"Repo rate" and "reverse repo rate" are instruments of:
  1. AFiscal policy
  2. BMonetary policy
  3. CTrade policy
  4. DIndustrial policy
Q37Under the Seventh Schedule, "Police" and "Public Order" fall under which list?
  1. AUnion List
  2. BState List
  3. CConcurrent List
  4. DResiduary powers
Q38The first Five-Year Plan of India (1951 to 1956) gave the highest priority to:
  1. AHeavy industry
  2. BAgriculture and irrigation
  3. CSelf-reliance
  4. DPoverty alleviation
Q39The "Vote on Account" allows the Government to:
  1. ALevy a new tax without Parliament
  2. BWithdraw funds to meet expenditure for a part of the year pending the full budget
  3. CBorrow from the RBI without limit
  4. DSuspend the budget for a year

Q40. Consider the following about the Election Commission of India:

  1. It is a constitutional body under Article 324.
  2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Section C: History of India (Q41 to Q56)

Q41Which of the following metals was NOT known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
  1. ACopper
  2. BBronze
  3. CGold
  4. DIron
Q42The Gayatri Mantra is found in which Veda?
  1. ARigveda
  2. BSamaveda
  3. CYajurveda
  4. DAtharvaveda
Q43The Third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under the patronage of:
  1. ABimbisara
  2. BAjatashatru
  3. CAshoka
  4. DKanishka
Q44Match List I (Foreign traveller) with List II (Period or court visited):
  1. AMegasthenes 1. Court of Chandragupta Maurya
  2. BFa-Hien 2. Reign of Chandragupta II
  3. CHiuen Tsang 3. Reign of Harshavardhana
  4. DIbn Battuta 4. Court of Muhammad bin Tughlaq Codes:
  5. AA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  6. BA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  7. CA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  8. DA-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
Q45The Qutb Minar at Delhi was begun by Qutb-ud-din Aibak and completed by:
  1. AIltutmish
  2. BBalban
  3. CAlauddin Khalji
  4. DRazia Sultana
Q46The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 by:
  1. AKrishnadeva Raya
  2. BHarihara and Bukka
  3. CPulakeshin II
  4. DDevaraya II
Q47Who was the founder of the Sikh religion?
  1. AGuru Arjan Dev
  2. BGuru Gobind Singh
  3. CGuru Nanak
  4. DGuru Tegh Bahadur
Q48The Treaty of Srirangapatnam (1792) was signed after the defeat of:
  1. AHyder Ali
  2. BTipu Sultan
  3. CThe Nizam of Hyderabad
  4. DThe Peshwa

Q49. Consider the following about the early national movement:

  1. The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 with A O Hume playing a key role.
  2. The partition of Bengal in 1905 triggered the Swadeshi Movement. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q50The Rowlatt Act of 1919, which allowed detention without trial, led directly to:
  1. AThe Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Rowlatt Satyagraha
  2. BThe Quit India Movement
  3. CThe formation of the Muslim League
  4. DThe Cripps Mission
Q51Who gave the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it"?
  1. AMahatma Gandhi
  2. BBal Gangadhar Tilak
  3. CLala Lajpat Rai
  4. DBipin Chandra Pal
Q52Match List I (Movement) with List II (Year):
  1. ANon-Cooperation Movement 1. 1930
  2. BCivil Disobedience (Dandi March) 2. 1942
  3. CQuit India Movement 3. 1920
  4. DKhilafat Movement 4. 1919 Codes:
  5. AA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  6. BA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  7. CA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  8. DA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Q53The Indian National Army (INA), revived by Subhas Chandra Bose, had its headquarters during the war in:
  1. ATokyo
  2. BSingapore
  3. CBerlin
  4. DRangoon
Q54The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for:
  1. AComplete independence
  2. BAn all-India federation and provincial autonomy
  3. CThe creation of Pakistan
  4. DDyarchy at the Centre for the first time

Q55. Consider the following about social reform:

  1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj and campaigned against Sati.
  2. The practice of Sati was legally abolished in 1829 during the governor-generalship of Lord William Bentinck. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q56The Cripps Mission (1942) was sent to India mainly to:
  1. APartition the country
  2. BSecure Indian cooperation in the Second World War by promising dominion status after the war
  3. CTransfer power immediately
  4. DSuppress the Quit India Movement

Section D: Indian and World Geography (Q57 to Q72)

Q57The standard meridian of India (82° 30 minutes East) passes through which city or its vicinity?
  1. AAllahabad (Prayagraj), near Mirzapur
  2. BNagpur
  3. CBhopal
  4. DKolkata
Q58The highest mountain peak entirely within India is:
  1. AMount Everest
  2. BKanchenjunga
  3. CNanda Devi
  4. DK2 (Godwin Austen)

Q59. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Sundarbans delta is formed by the Ganga, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers.
  2. The Chilika Lake on the east coast is a brackish-water lagoon. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q60Which one of the following is a west-flowing river of peninsular India?
  1. AGodavari
  2. BKrishna
  3. CNarmada
  4. DKaveri
Q61The "doldrums" near the equator are characterised by:
  1. AStrong trade winds
  2. BCalm, low-pressure conditions with rising air
  3. CPermanent high pressure
  4. DCold descending air
Q62Match List I (Mountain range) with List II (Country or region):
  1. AAndes 1. Western North America
  2. BRockies 2. South America
  3. CAlps 3. Europe
  4. DAtlas 4. North Africa Codes:
  5. AA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  6. BA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  7. CA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  8. DA-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Q63The Nine Degree Channel separates:
  1. AThe Andaman from the Nicobar Islands
  2. BLakshadweep (Laccadive) from Minicoy
  3. CIndia from Sri Lanka
  4. DMinicoy from the Maldives
Q64Which is the largest fresh-water lake in India?
  1. AChilika
  2. BWular
  3. CDal
  4. DSambhar
Q65The "Roaring Forties" are strong westerly winds found in the:
  1. ANorthern Hemisphere
  2. BSouthern Hemisphere between 40 and 50° south
  3. CEquatorial belt
  4. DPolar regions

Q66. Consider the following about India's neighbours:

  1. India shares its longest land border with Bangladesh.
  2. The Radcliffe Line is the boundary between India and Pakistan. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q67The phenomenon of "ocean upwelling" generally results in:
  1. AWarm, nutrient-poor surface water
  2. BCold, nutrient-rich surface water that supports rich fisheries
  3. CThe formation of coral reefs only
  4. DA rise in sea level
Q68Which State has the largest area under forest cover in India (by absolute area)?
  1. AArunachal Pradesh
  2. BMadhya Pradesh
  3. CChhattisgarh
  4. DMaharashtra
Q69The Great Barrier Reef, the world's largest coral reef system, lies off the coast of:
  1. ABrazil
  2. BAustralia
  3. CIndonesia
  4. DSouth Africa
Q70Match List I (Local wind) with List II (Region):
  1. ALoo 1. North India (hot summer wind)
  2. BChinook 2. Rocky Mountains (warm dry wind)
  3. CMistral 3. France (cold wind)
  4. DSirocco 4. Sahara to Mediterranean (hot wind) Codes:
  5. AA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  6. BA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  7. CA-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  8. DA-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
Q71Which type of coal has the highest carbon content and calorific value?
  1. APeat
  2. BLignite
  3. CBituminous
  4. DAnthracite
Q72The "Tropic of Capricorn" is located at:
  1. A23.5° North
  2. B23.5° South
  3. C66.5° North
  4. D

Section E: General Science (Q73 to Q88)

Q73The SI unit of pressure is the:
  1. ANewton
  2. BPascal
  3. CJoule
  4. DWatt
Q74Which of the following diseases is caused by a bacterium?
  1. AMalaria
  2. BTuberculosis
  3. CDengue
  4. DInfluenza
Q75The "echo" of sound is an example of:
  1. ARefraction
  2. BReflection
  3. CDiffraction
  4. DAbsorption

Q76. Consider the following:

  1. The element with atomic number 1 is hydrogen.
  2. Water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q77The largest gland in the human body is the:
  1. APancreas
  2. BLiver
  3. CThyroid
  4. DPituitary
Q78Which gas is used to fill electric bulbs to prevent the filament from burning?
  1. AOxygen
  2. BCarbon dioxide
  3. CArgon (or nitrogen)
  4. DHydrogen
Q79The phenomenon by which the sky appears blue is due to:
  1. AReflection of sunlight
  2. BScattering of light by air molecules
  3. CRefraction in clouds
  4. DTotal internal reflection
Q80Which vitamin is synthesised in the human skin in the presence of sunlight?
  1. AVitamin A
  2. BVitamin C
  3. CVitamin D
  4. DVitamin K
Q81The acid present in the human stomach that aids digestion is:
  1. ASulphuric acid
  2. BHydrochloric acid
  3. CNitric acid
  4. DAcetic acid

Q82. Consider the following:

  1. Speed of light is greater in vacuum than in water.
  2. A convex lens converges light rays. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q83The functional unit of the kidney is the:
  1. ANeuron
  2. BNephron
  3. CAlveolus
  4. DHepatocyte
Q84Which one of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
  1. ASolar energy
  2. BWind energy
  3. CCoal
  4. DTidal energy
Q85Rusting of iron is a chemical process that requires:
  1. AOxygen and moisture
  2. BOnly heat
  3. COnly sunlight
  4. DCarbon dioxide alone
Q86The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is the:
  1. AThermometer
  2. BBarometer
  3. CHygrometer
  4. DAnemometer
Q87Which one of the following is a mammal?
  1. AShark
  2. BWhale
  3. CCrocodile
  4. DPenguin
Q88The gas responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer in the stratosphere is mainly:
  1. ACarbon dioxide
  2. BChlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
  3. CMethane
  4. DSulphur dioxide

Section F: Current Events, durable layer (Q89 to Q100)

Q89Which Central Armed Police Force is the largest in terms of personnel and is deployed widely for internal security and counter-insurgency duties?
  1. ABorder Security Force (BSF)
  2. BCentral Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
  3. CCentral Industrial Security Force (CISF)
  4. DIndo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Q90The Border Security Force (BSF) is primarily responsible for guarding India's borders with:
  1. AChina and Bhutan
  2. BPakistan and Bangladesh
  3. CNepal and Myanmar
  4. DAfghanistan and Iran
Q91The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, AFSPA, applies in areas declared as:
  1. ASpecial Economic Zones
  2. B"Disturbed areas"
  3. CUnion Territories
  4. DBorder districts
Q92Which international organisation publishes the "Global Hunger Index" jointly with its partners?
  1. AThe World Bank alone
  2. BWelthungerhilfe and Concern Worldwide
  3. CThe International Monetary Fund
  4. DThe World Trade Organization
Q93Match List I (International body) with List II (Headquarters):
  1. AInternational Court of Justice 1. Geneva
  2. BWorld Health Organization 2. The Hague
  3. CInternational Atomic Energy Agency 3. Vienna
  4. DUnited Nations (General Assembly) 4. New York Codes:
  5. AA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  6. BA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  7. CA-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
  8. DA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Q94The "Universal Declaration of Human Rights" was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in:
  1. A1945
  2. B1948
  3. C1950
  4. D1966
Q95Which body is the apex anti-terror investigation agency of India, set up after the 2008 Mumbai attacks?
  1. ACentral Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  2. BNational Investigation Agency (NIA)
  3. CIntelligence Bureau (IB)
  4. DResearch and Analysis Wing (RAW)
Q96The "Wagah-Attari" border, famous for the daily beating-retreat ceremony, lies on the border between India and:
  1. ABangladesh
  2. BPakistan
  3. CNepal
  4. DChina

Q97. Consider the following about UN peacekeeping:

  1. India has been one of the largest contributors of troops to UN peacekeeping operations.
  2. UN peacekeeping forces operate only with the consent of the host State and under a Security Council mandate. Which is or are correct?
  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 2 only
  • (c) Both 1 and 2
  • (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q98The "Line of Actual Control" (LAC) is the effective boundary between India and:
  1. APakistan
  2. BChina
  3. CNepal
  4. DMyanmar
Q99The principle of "distinction" in International Humanitarian Law requires combatants to:
  1. AWear uniforms at all times
  2. BDistinguish between combatants and civilians and not target civilians
  3. CSurrender when outnumbered
  4. DUse only conventional weapons
Q100The "Multi-Agency Centre" (MAC) in India is the platform for:
  1. ADisaster relief coordination
  2. BReal-time sharing of terrorism-related intelligence among agencies
  3. CForeign trade negotiations
  4. DCurrency management

ANSWER KEY: Full Mock 02

Reveal the answer key and full worked solutions
Q Answer One-line explanation
1 (b) 36 The series is perfect squares 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, so the next is 6 squared = 36. See number system and simplification.
2 (a) GSJEBZ Each letter moves one forward: F to G, R to S, I to J, D to E, A to B, Y to Z. See verbal reasoning.
3 (b) Uncle A is the brother of B, B is the sister of C, so A, B and C are siblings; C is the father of D, so A (C's brother) is D's uncle. See logical reasoning.
4 (b) 5.5 Average of 1 to 10 = (1+10)/2 = 5.5. See percentage ratio and average.
5 (b) Rs 500 The Rs 90 covers the gap from minus 10 percent to plus 8 percent, that is 18 percent of cost; 18 percent of CP = 90, so CP = 500. See profit loss and interest.
6 (c) June January, March, May, July have 31 days; June has 30, so it is the odd one out. See logical reasoning.
7 (c) 50 Parts 3 and 5 of total 8 give 80; larger = 5/8 × 80 = 50. See percentage ratio and average.
8 (b) 10 days 2(A+B+C) rate = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = (5+4+3)/60 = 12/60 = 1/5, so A+B+C rate = 1/10, time 10 days. See time speed distance and time and work.
9 (a) Each letter is replaced by the next letter TODAY to UPEBZ and MONDAY to NPOEBZ both shift each letter one place forward. See verbal reasoning.
10 (a) Mother "The only daughter of my mother" is the woman herself, and that person is the man's mother, so the woman is the man's mother. See logical reasoning.
11 (a) 30 25 percent of 800 = 200; 15 percent of 200 = 30. See percentage ratio and average.
12 (c) 200 121, 144, 169, 225 are perfect squares (11, 12, 13, 15 squared); 200 is not. See number system and simplification.
13 (a) 2.5 km/h Downstream speed 10 km/h, upstream 5 km/h; stream speed = (10 minus 5)/2 = 2.5 km/h. See time speed distance and time and work.
14 (b) 29th Position from right = total minus left + 1 = 40 minus 12 + 1 = 29. See logical reasoning.
15 (a) R The series steps back two letters each time: Z, X, V, T, R. See verbal reasoning.
16 (b) 10 percent The interest in the third year (2662 minus 2420 = 242) on 2420 gives rate 242/2420 = 10 percent. See profit loss and interest.
17 (c) No definite conclusion about roses fading "Some flowers fade quickly" need not include any rose, so nothing certain follows about roses. See logical reasoning.
18 (c) 12 In a 3 × 3 × 3 cube, the edge (non-corner) small cubes have exactly two painted faces; there are 12 edges, so 12 such cubes. See non verbal reasoning.
19 (b) Rs 600 SI = 5000 × 6 × 2 / 100 = 600. See profit loss and interest.
20 (c) 112 Each term doubles: 7, 14, 28, 56, 112. See number system and simplification.
21 (b) Monday Day before yesterday Thursday means today is Saturday; day after tomorrow is Monday. See logical reasoning.
22 (c) Rs 600 Parts 2:3:5 of total 10; largest = 5/10 × 1200 = 600. See percentage ratio and average.
23 (b) Ireland The Directive Principles were borrowed from the Irish Constitution. See directive principles and fundamental duties.
24 (d) 1, 2 and 3 The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the President's pleasure, must be at least 35, and the same person can be Governor of more than one State. See state government.
25 (b) Certiorari Certiorari quashes an order of a lower court or tribunal that exceeded its jurisdiction. See fundamental rights.
26 (c) 35 years A presidential candidate must be at least 35 years old. See union executive.
27 (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 PAC checks spending as authorised, Estimates Committee suggests economies, Committee on Public Undertakings examines PSUs, Business Advisory Committee allocates legislative time. See parliament.
28 (c) Chief Minister of a State The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, not the President. See state government.
29 (b) Article 110 Article 110 defines a Money Bill. See parliament.
30 (c) Both 1 and 2 The Finance Commission is constituted by the President roughly every five years (Article 280); the GST Council recommends rates and exemptions. See federalism and centre state relations.
31 (b) The share of a bank's net demand and time liabilities to be kept as cash reserves with the RBI CRR is the portion of NDTL banks keep as cash with the RBI. See money and banking and the rbi.
32 (b) An excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply Demand-pull inflation comes from demand outrunning supply. See inflation and prices.
33 (c) Corporation tax Corporation tax is a revenue receipt; recovery of loans, disinvestment and borrowings are capital items. See budget and fiscal policy.
34 (b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) The CACP recommends the MSP to the Government. See agriculture and rural economy.
35 (c) Both 1 and 2 A Money Bill starts only in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha can hold it for at most 14 days. See parliament.
36 (b) Monetary policy Repo and reverse repo are RBI monetary-policy tools. See money and banking and the rbi.
37 (b) State List Police and Public Order are State List subjects under the Seventh Schedule. See federalism and centre state relations.
38 (b) Agriculture and irrigation The First Plan, on the Harrod-Domar model, prioritised agriculture and irrigation after Partition. See planning and niti aayog.
39 (b) Withdraw funds to meet expenditure for a part of the year pending the full budget A Vote on Account funds short-term expenditure before the full budget passes. See budget and fiscal policy.
40 (c) Both 1 and 2 The ECI is a constitutional body under Article 324, and the CEC is removable only like a Supreme Court judge. See constitutional and statutory bodies.
41 (d) Iron The Indus people knew copper, bronze and gold but not iron; iron came in the later Vedic age. See indus valley civilisation.
42 (a) Rigveda The Gayatri Mantra is from the Rigveda. See vedic age.
43 (c) Ashoka The Third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under Ashoka's patronage (presided by Moggaliputta Tissa). See mauryan empire.
44 (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Megasthenes at Chandragupta Maurya's court, Fa-Hien under Chandragupta II, Hiuen Tsang under Harsha, Ibn Battuta under Muhammad bin Tughlaq. See delhi sultanate.
45 (a) Iltutmish Iltutmish completed the Qutb Minar begun by Aibak. See delhi sultanate.
46 (b) Harihara and Bukka Harihara and Bukka founded Vijayanagara in 1336. See south india and sangam age.
47 (c) Guru Nanak Guru Nanak founded Sikhism. See bhakti and sufi movements.
48 (b) Tipu Sultan The Treaty of Srirangapatnam (1792) followed Tipu Sultan's defeat in the Third Anglo-Mysore War. See advent of europeans and british conquest.
49 (c) Both 1 and 2 The Congress was founded in 1885 with A O Hume's role, and the 1905 partition of Bengal sparked the Swadeshi Movement. See rise of nationalism moderates and extremists.
50 (a) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Rowlatt Satyagraha The Rowlatt Act triggered the Rowlatt Satyagraha and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of April 1919. See gandhian era and mass movements.
51 (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Tilak gave the "Swaraj is my birthright" slogan. See rise of nationalism moderates and extremists.
52 (a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 Non-Cooperation 1920, Civil Disobedience (Dandi) 1930, Quit India 1942, Khilafat 1919. See gandhian era and mass movements.
53 (b) Singapore The revived INA under Bose was headquartered at Singapore. See towards independence acts and partition.
54 (b) An all-India federation and provincial autonomy The 1935 Act proposed an all-India federation and gave provincial autonomy. See towards independence acts and partition.
55 (c) Both 1 and 2 Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj and fought Sati; Sati was abolished in 1829 under Bentinck. See socio religious reform movements.
56 (b) Secure Indian cooperation in the Second World War by promising dominion status after the war The Cripps Mission offered post-war dominion status to win wartime cooperation; it failed. See towards independence acts and partition.
57 (a) Allahabad (Prayagraj), near Mirzapur The standard meridian 82.5° East passes near Mirzapur in the Prayagraj region. See india physiography.
58 (c) Nanda Devi Kanchenjunga is the highest peak in India but on the border with Nepal; Nanda Devi is the highest peak lying entirely within India. See india physiography.
59 (c) Both 1 and 2 The Sundarbans is the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta; Chilika is a brackish-water lagoon on the east coast. See indian drainage system and rivers.
60 (c) Narmada The Narmada flows west into the Arabian Sea; Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri flow east. See indian drainage system and rivers.
61 (b) Calm, low-pressure conditions with rising air The doldrums (inter-tropical convergence) have calm, low-pressure, rising air. See climatology atmosphere and winds.
62 (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 Andes in South America, Rockies in western North America, Alps in Europe, Atlas in North Africa. See world physical geography.
63 (b) Lakshadweep (Laccadive) from Minicoy The Nine Degree Channel separates the main Lakshadweep group from Minicoy. See india physiography.
64 (b) Wular Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir is India's largest fresh-water lake; Chilika is brackish, Sambhar is salt. See indian drainage system and rivers.
65 (b) Southern Hemisphere between 40 and 50° south The Roaring Forties are strong westerlies in the Southern Hemisphere mid-latitudes. See climatology atmosphere and winds.
66 (c) Both 1 and 2 India's longest land border is with Bangladesh; the Radcliffe Line is the India-Pakistan boundary. See india borders neighbours and strategic geography.
67 (b) Cold, nutrient-rich surface water that supports rich fisheries Upwelling brings cold, nutrient-rich water up, sustaining major fisheries. See oceanography.
68 (b) Madhya Pradesh Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover by absolute area; verify the latest Forest Survey figures. See soils and natural vegetation of india.
69 (b) Australia The Great Barrier Reef lies off north-eastern Australia. See world physical geography.
70 (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Loo in North India, Chinook in the Rockies, Mistral in France, Sirocco from the Sahara to the Mediterranean. See climatology atmosphere and winds.
71 (d) Anthracite Anthracite has the highest carbon content and calorific value among coals. See minerals and energy resources of india.
72 (b) 23.5° South The Tropic of Capricorn lies at about 23.5° South. See world physical geography.
73 (b) Pascal The pascal is the SI unit of pressure (one newton per square metre). See physics everyday.
74 (b) Tuberculosis Tuberculosis is caused by a bacterium (Mycobacterium tuberculosis); the others are by a protozoan or viruses. See nutrition diseases and health.
75 (b) Reflection An echo is the reflection of sound from a surface. See physics everyday.
76 (c) Both 1 and 2 Atomic number 1 is hydrogen, and water is a hydrogen-oxygen compound. See chemistry everyday.
77 (b) Liver The liver is the largest gland in the human body. See human body and systems.
78 (c) Argon (or nitrogen) Inert argon (or nitrogen) fills bulbs to stop the filament oxidising. See physics everyday.
79 (b) Scattering of light by air molecules The blue sky results from Rayleigh scattering of shorter wavelengths by air molecules. See physics everyday.
80 (c) Vitamin D Vitamin D is synthesised in the skin under sunlight. See nutrition diseases and health.
81 (b) Hydrochloric acid The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid for digestion. See human body and systems.
82 (c) Both 1 and 2 Light is fastest in vacuum and slows in water; a convex lens converges rays. See physics everyday.
83 (b) Nephron The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. See human body and systems.
84 (c) Coal Coal is a non-renewable fossil fuel; the others are renewable. See environment and ecology.
85 (a) Oxygen and moisture Rusting needs both oxygen and moisture (water). See chemistry everyday.
86 (b) Barometer A barometer measures atmospheric pressure. See physics everyday.
87 (b) Whale The whale is a mammal; sharks are fish, crocodiles are reptiles, penguins are birds. See biology cell and classification.
88 (b) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) CFCs release chlorine that destroys stratospheric ozone. See environment and ecology.
89 (b) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) The CRPF is the largest CAPF and the main internal-security and anti-insurgency force. See defence and internal security in news.
90 (b) Pakistan and Bangladesh The BSF guards the India-Pakistan and India-Bangladesh borders. See defence and internal security in news.
91 (b) "Disturbed areas" AFSPA applies in areas declared "disturbed" by the Centre or the Governor. See human rights and internal security.
92 (b) Welthungerhilfe and Concern Worldwide The Global Hunger Index is published by Welthungerhilfe and Concern Worldwide. See reports indices and their publishers.
93 (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 ICJ at The Hague, WHO at Geneva, IAEA at Vienna, UN General Assembly at New York. See international organisations and india.
94 (b) 1948 The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on 10 December 1948. See human rights and internal security.
95 (b) National Investigation Agency (NIA) The NIA, created after the 2008 Mumbai attacks, is the apex anti-terror investigation agency. See defence and internal security in news.
96 (b) Pakistan The Wagah-Attari border, with its retreat ceremony, is on the India-Pakistan border. See india borders neighbours and strategic geography.
97 (c) Both 1 and 2 India is among the largest troop contributors to UN peacekeeping, which operates with host consent and a Security Council mandate. See international organisations and india.
98 (b) China The Line of Actual Control is the effective India-China boundary. See india borders neighbours and strategic geography.
99 (b) Distinguish between combatants and civilians and not target civilians The principle of distinction bars targeting civilians. See human rights and internal security.
100 (b) Real-time sharing of terrorism-related intelligence among agencies The Multi-Agency Centre is the hub for sharing terror-related intelligence across agencies. See defence and internal security in news.

Cross-references

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